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Davidson Mcqs Pdf

MCQ's for Davidson's Principles & Practice of Medicine includes multiple choice questions. which are on “Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine”. Microbiology For Dummies 1st Edition PDF Free Download. In this part of the article, you will be able to access file of MCQ's for Davidson's Principles & Practice of Medicine 4th Edition PDF by using our direct . One Thousand MCQs for Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine Michael J. Ford. حجم الكتاب: MB. صيغة الكتاب: pdf. مرات التحميل:

All answers carry an explanation with them. So, in a nutshell, every medico can get benefits from this book. Table Of Contents: The molecular and cellular basis of disease Diseases due to infection. Diseases of the respiratory system. Disturbances in water, electrolyte and acid-base balance. Disease of the kidney and urinary system. Diabetes Mellitus and nutritional and metabolic disorders. Endocrine disease. Disease of the liver and biliary system.

Question 5. The physical signs of an uncomplicated large pneumothorax include: False b A clicking sound synchronous with the heart beat. True c Symmetrical expansion of the chest.

False d Increased breath sounds over the pneumothorax. False e Increased percussion note over the pneumothorax. Question 6. The following would help distinguish between a kidney and a spleen in the left upper quadrant: False b A well-localized notched lower margin. False c Moves with respiration. False d A ballottable mass. True e A family history of renal failure. Question 7. False b Horizontal nystagmus is usually ipsilateral to an irritative lesion of the labyrinth. False c Ataxic nystagmus indicates a lesion of the medial longitudinal bundle.

True d May be absent in a lesion of the cerebellar vermis the central part. Question 8. The following would suggest an upper rather than a lower motor neuron lesion: False b Increased tone.

True c An absent plantar reflex. False d Clonus. True e Relatively little wasting. Question 9. Hand signs: False b Koilonychia usually indicates liver disease.

1000 MCQs for Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine

False c Osler's nodes and Heberden's nodes both occur in osteoarthritis. False d Splinter haemorrhages are due to embolic rather than immunological phenomena. False e Psoriatic arthritis affects most joints in the hand but usually spares the distal interphalangeal DIP joints.

False True. Question The face: True b A butterfly rash in the face is seen in dermatomyositis. False c Bell's palsy can cause ptosis due to paralysis of orbicularis oculi. False d Herpes labialis may be associated with pneumococcal pneumonia. True e An expressionless face and drooling could indicate Parkinson's disease. The electrocardiogram: True d Left bundle branch block is suggested by broadening of the QRS complex to 0.

False e P mitrale is suggested by a P wave taller than 2. In the full blood count: False b Polycythaemia rubra vera is usually indicated by elevation not only of the haemoglobin but also of the white cell count and platelets. True c A low platelet count could indicate a flare-up of systemic lupus erythematosus SLE.

True d High platelets can be seen in gastrointestinal bleeding. True e A raised mean corpuscular volume is usual in significant alcohol excess. Heart failure: False b Congestion of the pulmonary veins alone does not result in orthopnoea. False c Chronic congestive heart failure leads to secondary hyperaldosteronism. True d Causes of heart failure include ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and thiamine deficiency.

True e Clinical features of right heart failure include a raised JVP, ankle oedema, and hepatomegaly. False b In supratentorial strokes with homonymous hemianopsia, patients cannot see on the hemiplegic side. True c Vertigo, vomiting, dysphagia, and Horner's syndrome indicate occlusion of the vertebrobasilar circulation. True d Pinpoint pupils and bilateral upgoing plantars could signal a brainstem stroke. False b In respiratory failure associated with chronic bronchitis, the level of carbon dioxide CO2 determines the respiratory rate.

False c Respiratory failure as defined in a would be an indication for ventilation in pure asthma. True d Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant used in respiratory failure associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Cushing's syndrome: True b Is usually diagnosed by estimation of the urinary free cortisol followed by an overnight dexamethasone suppression test. True c Could be associated with pigmentation. True d The most common cause is probably iatrogenic. True e Nelson's syndrome is a complication of bilateral adrenalectomy for pituitary-dependent Cushing's disease. True c The usual development of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is a transformation to acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.

1000 MCQs For Davidson's Principles and Practice Of Medicine

True e Bone marrow transplantation is a recognized treatment for AML. False b Thiazide diuretics are the least effective antihypertensive drugs. False c Thiazide diuretics work on the loop of Henle in the kidney. False d Resistant hypertension is defined as a failure to control the blood pressure adequately with a good three-drug regimen. True e Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in gout and diabetes. Oral corticosteroids: True b In the long term may cause cataracts.

True c Should be avoided in sarcoidosis because they induce pulmonary oedema. False d May be stopped abruptly after 2 weeks of 40 mg prednisolone daily in patients who are not exposed to repeated courses.

Paracetamol overdose: False b Can cause renal failure. True c Intravenous N-acetylcysteine frequently causes anaphylaxis. False d The serum paracetamol level is of most value between 1 and 4 hours after ingestion. False e In co-proxamol distalgesic overdose, sudden death is likely to be due to hypoglycaemia caused by paracetamol. Treatment of myocardial infarction: True b Thrombolysis improves short-term complications but not mortality after myocardial infarction.

True d All patients should be assessed by a qualified psychiatrist. True Question 3.

True d Ventricular or supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. True e HMGCo-A reductase inhibitor therapy is contraindicated for patients after myocardial infarction. False b May cause xanthopsia.

False c Patients with tricyclic antidepressant overdose need cardiac monitoring for up to 48 hours. For self-poisoning: False d ACE inhibitors improve outcome after myocardial infarction for patients with ventricular dysfunction. True d Adverse effects are reduced by hypokalaemia.

True d Cholecystitis. True e A cerebral tumour. True d Is needed when respiratory failure is diagnosed by finding a pO2 of less than 11 kPa in an arterial blood sample.

True c Pyrexia. False Question True c Hypothyroidism. True e Bacterial endocarditis. False c Continuous long-term domiciliary oxygen improves survival in patients with respiratory failure caused by chronic bronchitis and emphysema. True Question False e Pinpoint pupils could indicate opiate overdose. True b Haematuria. Dementia may result from: True Module 5 Cardiology Question 2. True b Oesophagitis. True c Pneumothorax. The differential diagnosis for chest pain includes: True d Rashes. True c Is excreted by the kidneys.

True e Aortic dissection. False b Naloxone is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose. True b Huntington's chorea. True b Pulmonary embolus. The following are clinical signs found in infective endocarditis: True c Pulmonary embolus. False b Should not be used at high concentration in patients with pulmonary embolism because respiration may be severely impaired when the hypoxic drive is reduced. True By A. The following are causes of acute life-threatening dyspnoea: True Question 4.

False e Must not be coadministered with an ACE inhibitor. True d Enlarged left ventricle. True Question 6. True Question 9. True c Bruits heard over the scapula. The following should be considered as possible signs of a positive exercise test: False c Rapid recovery. True e Associated left ventricular failure. True c Exercise-induced ventricular tachycardia.

True b Ventricular septal defect. The following conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures: False c Tricuspid regurgitation. True d Atrial septal defect. The following are classical features of cardiac syncope: False Question 8.

False e Precipitated by sudden turning of the head. True b It may be caused by myocardial ischaemia. True c It may be caused by hypokalaemia. True b Rib notching. True e Increasing age. False Question 7. The following are true of ventricular tachycardia: False c Female sex. False b Warning symptoms. True d A history of cerebral thromboembolism. The following are signs of coarctation of the aorta: True b Moderate alcohol intake. True d Lack of adequate tachycardic response to exercise.

True b Aortic regurgitation. True e Leg pain at peak exercise. The following are indications for anticoagulating a patient who has atrial fibrillation with warfarin: True c Atrial fibrillation of more than 24 hours' duration. False d Hypercholesterolaemia. False b Associated mitral stenosis. True c Floppy mitral valve with coexistent mitral regurgitation. The following are causes of a pansystolic murmur: True d Amiodarone may be used to prevent recurrent episodes of ventricular tachycardia.

False By A. False e A history of infective endocarditis in the past. True d Residual neurological deficit. False e Aortic stenosis. True d Ankle oedema. True b Exercise-induced hypotension.

True Question 5. True e Acute ongoing ventricular tachycardia should be treated initially with drugs. The following are risk factors for ischaemic heart disease: True b They may cause gout. False c AVR and V1. False b Chronic infective endocarditis. False b V2. True c Hypertension. True b To prevent neck injury. False c To minimize the risk of aspiration of gastric contents. True b Tension pneumothorax.

The following are classified as high-output states: True e It is heaving in aortic stenosis. True b It is displaced downwards and laterally if the left ventricle is enlarged. True d To maintain a straight airway. The following statements are true of the apex beat: False d Dehydration. Cardiac causes of clubbing are as follows: True d Failure of the valve 5 years after placement. Functions of the recovery position include: False d Pregnancy.

Complications of prosthetic heart valves are as follows: False d It is thrusting in aortic regurgitation. True d Hypokalaemia may occur. False e Need for anticoagulation in patients who have porcine valves.

The following are possible causes of electromechanical dissociation: True e To enable cardiopulmonary resuscitation to be carried out. True c Diabetic control may deteriorate.

False d V1-V6. False d Acute endocarditis. True b Dehiscence of the valve ring. False e Empyema. False e II. True c Increased risk of infective endocarditis. True e They cause ototoxicity. The following statements are true of thiazide diuretics: False b Sepsis. The following leads represent the inferior myocardium: True e Arteriovenous malformations. True c Atrial fibrillation. True c It is thrusting in mitral stenosis. True d Pregnancy.

True d Myocardial rupture. False Module 6 Neurology Question 1. True d Complete heart block. True d The trochlear fouth cranial nerve supplies the lateral rectus muscle. Secondary hypertension may be due to the following: True e Blood-stained cerebrospinal fluid CSF. Concerning neuroanatomy: True d Changing level of consciousness. False Question 2. The following are characteristic of pericarditis: False b The oculomotor nerve runs in close proximity to the posterior communicating artery.

False e The spinal cord ends at the level of the lower border of L3 in the adult. True b Sinus tachycardia. True c Cerebrovascular event. True c The pericardial rub may come and go. In a young woman with a spastic paraparesis.

1000 MCQ’s for Davidson’s Principles & Practice of Medicine 4th Edition

True e Gastrointestinal bleed. True b Renal cell carcinoma. True b Pupillary change. The following drugs are used in the treatment of hypertension: False c Cushing's syndrome.

True e Oral contraceptive pill. True c Ventricular tachycardia. True c The superior colliculus is found in the midbrain. True d Bendrofluazide. True e Nicorandil. Complications of myocardial infarction include: False e The ST elevation is concave.

ECG changes due to myocardial infarction may include the following: True b Mitral regurgitation. False b There may be an associated pericardial effusion. True b Fasciculations. True e Q waves. True c Bradycardia. True b Doxazocin. True c Enalapril. False Question 3. Subdural haematomas can cause: False d Metoclopramide. False b A normal CT scan rules out subarachnoid haemorrhage. Concerning the brachial plexus: True d Neurological signs on examination rules out migraine as a diagnosis.

True Question 7. True c Infarction of the subthalamic nucleus causes ipsilateral hemiballism. True c There is ipsilateral loss of two-point discrimination below the level of the lesion. False d Oculomotor nerve third nerve palsy. False e Alcohol reduces benign essential tremor. True b There may be enlargement of the blind spot. True b Benzhexol. True b Motor neuron disease. Concerning papilloedema: True c Abducens nerve sixth nerve palsy.

True d There is ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of the lesion. The following drugs can produce parkinsonism: True e Periventricular white matter lesions on magnetic resonance imaging MRI of the brain.

True d Hypocalcaemia is a recognized cause. True b There is ipsilateral loss of joint-position sense below the lesion. True e Haloperidol. True d Cholesteatoma. False c Acoustic neuroma. False c Bromocriptine. The following are true about headaches: Concerning movement disorders: True b Klumpke's paralysis causes proximal arm weakness. False e Cluster headaches are more common in men than in women.

False Question 5.

False c Amaurosis fugax may be caused by temporal arteritis. True e Syringomyelia. True b Horner's syndrome. True e Myasthenia gravis. Ptosis may be a feature of: False d Chorea is commonly found in Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease. False d Oligoclonal bands in the CSF. True Question 8. Unilateral facial weakness is a recognized feature of: True c Intracranial pressure may be normal.

True b Myoclonus is a feature of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. True b The occipital cortex. True d The basal ganglia. True c Weakness of plantar flexion. False b Hypotonia. True c Renal failure. The following clinical features may help differentiate between a syncopal attack and a seizure: True c Absent tendon reflexes.

True c The optic chiasm. False c The hypoglossal nerve. True e The accessory nerve. True c Dysphasia. False d A flat EEG. False b Absent corneal reflexes. True b Thunderclap headache. False e Absent 'doll's eye' reflexes. True c Photophobia. True e Brisk ankle jerk. True e Multiple sclerosis. A homonymous hemianopia may arise from a lesion of: False e The optic radiation. True d Positive Kernig's sign. True b Broca's area. A lesion to the common peroneal nerve at the fibular head causes: False c A bitten tongue.

False d The optic nerve. True d Amyloid. False d If long term. True e Impaired rapid altering movements. True e Vaccination may precipitate brachial neuritis. Dysarthria may result from a lesion of: The following are clinical features of cerebellar dysfunction a Postural tremor.

Brainstem death may be confirmed by: True d Urinary incontinence. The following are features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage: True b Convulsive movements of the limbs.

False d Titubation. True b Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. True e Prolonged malaise after the attack.

MCQs for Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine : P. R. Fleming :

Causes of a polyneuropathy include: True e Contralateral third nerve palsy. True e Familial. True e Clonus may be elicited on examination of the legs. True b Ptosis. True d Altered perception of taste.

The following may be seen in a patient with a lesion of the third nerve or nucleus: True e Pain from the auditory meatus. True b Anterior spinal artery occlusion. False c Hyperacusis. False d Occlusion of a middle cerebral artery. A lesion of the medulla on one side may give rise to: True e Oesophageal pH is usually less than 4.

True b The gait is characterized by 'scissoring' posture of the legs. The following statements are true: False b It appears in an antegrade top to bottom direction. False c It is a premalignant condition. False e Compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed intervertebral disc.

True d A history of alcohol abuse may be implicated in the aetiology. False c A radiculopathy. Amber Jabeen , Student at karachi medical and dental college. Show More. No Downloads. Views Total views. Actions Shares. Embeds 0 No embeds. No notes for slide. WhiteKnightLove 2.

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